Re: [Aspell-user] What letters belongs to a word? (issue with Turkish "??")

[Daniel]

Agustin Martin <agustin.martin <at> hispalinux.es> writes:
 
> On Wed, Sep 07, 2011 at 09:47:01AM +0000, Daniel wrote:
> > When I run my aspell (through emacs), the Turkish letter "??" is not
> > considered to be part of words; I'm given suggestions "Bostanc",
> > when I actually wrote "Bastanc??". I am given no suggestion for
> > "??stanbul??", since "??" actually _is_ recognized as part of the
> > word... How can I tell aspell to include "??" in words?
> 
> Which aspell and emacs version are you using?

This is emacs 23.3.1 and aspell 0.60.6.1.

To clarify, it is the Turkish "lowercase dotless i" that Aspell doesn't
recognize as part of a word. This is when I run aspell on my text using
an English dictionary (from aspell-en package). From within Emacs, or 
with Aspell alone. I do pass --encoding=UTF-8, but it doesn't seem
necessary (it detects my locale, right).

But when I try with a Turkish dictionary, it does work. Then the
dotless-i is indeed part of the word. Probably because the tr.dat has
"charset iso8859-9", while en.dat has "charset iso8859-1". I didn't look
in the dat-files before. But this is a bit silly; I am using UTF-8!
Is this artifacts of old non-utf8 Aspell; it still needs to tie a
(narrow) character set to the dictionary it is spelling with?

Could all this really be expected behaviour?
(Moreover, I am not using any user dictionary.)