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Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?
From: |
Emanuel Berg |
Subject: |
Re: Why is booleanp defined this way? |
Date: |
Mon, 20 Apr 2015 01:08:23 +0200 |
User-agent: |
Gnus/5.13 (Gnus v5.13) Emacs/24.4 (gnu/linux) |
Barry Margolin <barmar@alum.mit.edu> writes:
> If you take a look at most modern programming
> languages (Perl, PHP, Python, C++)
Lisp - 1958
C++ - 1983
Perl - 1987
Python - 1991
PHP - 1995
--
underground experts united
http://user.it.uu.se/~embe8573
Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Rusi, 2015/04/17
- Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Emanuel Berg, 2015/04/17
- Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Rusi, 2015/04/17
- Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Emanuel Berg, 2015/04/17
- Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Barry Margolin, 2015/04/17
- Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Rusi, 2015/04/17
- Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Barry Margolin, 2015/04/18
- Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?,
Emanuel Berg <=
- Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Emanuel Berg, 2015/04/19
Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Emanuel Berg, 2015/04/18
Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Marcin Borkowski, 2015/04/18
Message not availableRe: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Rusi, 2015/04/18
Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Pascal J. Bourguignon, 2015/04/18
Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Rusi, 2015/04/18
Re: Why is booleanp defined this way?, Pascal J. Bourguignon, 2015/04/18