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Re: AutoBeam Behaving Properly?


From: Simon Albrecht
Subject: Re: AutoBeam Behaving Properly?
Date: Wed, 6 Apr 2016 10:17:34 +0200

On 06.04.2016 04:46, Martin Neubauer wrote:
I was more curious about the existence of music that's strictly in 3/4 time and where the way of printing a three-quaver pickup would actually make a difference.

There are hardly such cases before 1900, and that’s exactly why the convention changed. It’s a bit like with beaming in vocal music: pre-1900 music would rarely get so rhythmically complicated that having no beams on syllabic music would have been a problem. Such situations only came up later, so another notational convention was introduced.

Best, Simon



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