|
From: | Olivier Biot |
Subject: | Re: Excellent paper on 'Copyfraud' |
Date: | Sat, 9 Mar 2013 23:52:49 +0100 |
May I suggest a concrete example for consideration (because it's a tricky constellation and I'd appreciate any opinion)?
Given a musical work that is clearly in the public domain (1820s).
The autograph score is in private possession (in Switzerland).
The contents of this autograph have been brought to the public through a 'private print' (by a renowned scholar) in 1967.
I don't know how many copies there are from this private print, but some of them are available through public libraries (where I had the opportunity to take digital photographs).
If I now would want to make an edition of that work, and explicitely the version of that manuscript, would I have to ask the owner of the manuscript, or could I argue that the music is in the public domain and the manuscript has already been made public?
Would a claim of the owners of the manuscript to either charge royalties or prohibit the project be a valid cause or would you consider that copyfraud?
[Prev in Thread] | Current Thread | [Next in Thread] |